Originally posted by Cat Fuzz
Also, could you please make me aware of the problems you speak of?
The prophesy I'm referring to was Isaiah's prophesy to King Ahaz of Judah concerning the resolution of the upcoming war with Israel and Syria - "Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel.". The principal problem is that there is some evidence that Matthew's gospel may have been "tweaked" to make it appear that Jesus had fulfilled the prophesy. In the original it was written in the hebrew perfect tense, indicating that it had already come to pass - not that it would happen hundreds of years after the king was dead.
This might have happened after Alexander swept through Egypt and settled Alexandria (circa 200 BC?), and the Jews had to adopt Greek - apparently there was much embelishment to the original histories. The original hebrew texts were translated, and what emerged was the original text with a few alterations, as well as added passages and even books. The Septaugint was fairly mutilated. As you might be guessing, there's a lot more controversy than just Isaiah's prophesy that has risen from this (like Methusaleh living 14 years beyond the flood, and the dates of creation being off by over 1000 years). Thanks to a special kind of guy, Bishop Theophilus, answers are hard to come by - he was kind enough to burn the Library of Alexandria, containing the originals and 700,000 other texts. At any rate, the tense of the prophesy was screwed with.
As a side note, a lot of what was done in Alexandria was discarded by the church somewhere around the second century AD; one can only assume that they went back to something closer to the original. I don't know who did this, or exactly what they did - like I said, answers are hard to come by (thanks, holy guys!).
And there's also the matter of Jerome (St. Jerome, to be exact), a scribe/monk who did some translation work on the bible (circa 400 AD). The Church had a greek version of the bible, and a latin version, and there were some inconsistencies between the two. He translated the Sepatugint from the Church's greek version to latin for the Vatican to "smooth out" some of the inconsistencies. Then he later left the Vatican, went back to transcriptions of the original hebrew text, and came up with something different again. He apparently rendered a few words misleadingly in Matthew and elsewhere, like "almah" and "bethulah" - respectively "a young woman of marriageable age (regardless of marital status or virginity)", and "a virgin". He was later pressed to confess what he had done, and said that he had written a "lie to the glory of God." The church ignored his confession, preferring to stick with the more romantic version he had previously rendered. His "new" version is what you might now know as the Vulgate, or the Church's "accepted" translation. Now, re-read the line of the prophesy -
"Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel."
In direct translation to english, it apparently would read closer to
"Behold, the young woman has conceived, and beareth a son and calleth his name Immanuel."
I barely speak a word of hebrew, so I'm relying on what seems to be the commonly accepted translation. If you know someone who's fairly fluent, here's the hebrew from a transcription of the original Isaiah 7:14
"Hinneh ha-almah harah ve-yeldeth ben ve-karath shem-o Immanuel"
There's even more problems with the prophesy than that. It's most often taken entirely out of context, since that's the only way it can be considered a messianic prophesy fulfilled by Jesus. Take in the whole history of that passage, and you'll see the inconsistencies. To get you started, take a look at Isaiah vii:
First, God sends Isaiah to Ahaz to tell him "It shall not stand, neither shall it come to pass" and so forth. Then, next thing you know -
"Moreover Yahveh spake
again unto Ahaz saying, ask thee a sign of Yahveh thy God; ask it either in the depth, or in the height above".
That could be explained away by saying that God had already spoken to Ahaz, he just used Isaiah the first time. But wait, there's more
"And he said, Hear ye now, O house of David; It is a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also? "
Wait a minute, I thought God was doing the talking. No wonder the Bible confuses people. We move on to the maid bearing a child and all, and then -
"Butter and honey shall he eat, that he may know to refuse the evil, and choose the good. For before the child shall know to refuse the evil, and choose the good, the land that thou abhorrest shall be forsaken of both her kings."
Ok, I'm still a little confused as to who is talking, but it's commonly accepted that it's Isaiah. I don't know what eating butter or honey has to do with refusing evil and choosing good, but here's the deal - this is a prophesy about the upcoming war. Isaiah is telling Ahaz that he doesn't have to worry about the war, that both the kings of Syria and Israel will be dead when the child is young. When you take the direct translation of the prophesy, that means that he's talking about the son of a woman who is already pregnant, not a woman who'll be pregnant 3/4 of a millenium later. It makes perfect sense that way. Er, except the butter and honey thing. But then again, Isaiah rattled off a lot of gibberish. If you take the adopted translation as referring to Mary, then what does the prophesy have to do with the war? Nothing, everyone's dead by then anyway.